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Wednesday, April 6, 2011

Deuterogamy

Here's a little known fact: "remarriage" has a synonym, "Deuterogamy."

Spell check didn't recognize it either. Don't believe me? Check out Dictionary.com. Or how about Merriam-Webster. Now to the history behind the word. Breaking the word down into its parts: 1) Deutero- Per the comment below,  "second"; 2) -gamy. This suffix refers to marriage or a sexual union of some kind (see polygamy, bigamy, exogamy, allogamy, etc.). While I can't prove a direct etymological relation (at the moment) of deuterogamy to the fifth book of the Bible, Deuteronomy, it is fascinating that the only Biblical provision for deuterogamy is found in Deuteronomy. I still hold that the formation of the word (it is a variation of "digamy") may be somewhat related to the location of the provision in Scripture. All also submit that I could be completely wrong, and it really is a curious coincidence. But enough about what I can't prove, onto the truth. The specific passage in which the aforementioned provision is found is Deuteronomy 24:1-4:

When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife. And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorcement, and giveth it in her hand, and sendeth her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife; Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and thou shalt not cause the land to sin, which the Lord thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.

Clearly this passage from Deuteronomy gives provision, under the concept of deuterogamy, for a man to divorce a woman, and for that woman to be married to another man. I will for the time being avoid references to Jeremiah 3, Hosea, Malachi 2, Matthew 5, Matthew 19, Mark 10, Luke 16, Romans 3, and I Corinthians 7, all of which directly contradict the law given in this scripture. Did I just say that there is a contradiction in Scripture? Why, yes, I did. The contradiction is between righteousness and unrighteousness. Does the Scripture disagree with itself? Certainly not. However, within the Law of Moses (especially Exodus - Deuteronomy) there are laws that dictate how the Hebrew leadership should preside over unrighteous behavior within a community that should always, but in practice did not always, behave righteously. Often the lawful solution was the death of the offender. Message me for references if you'd like. In the case of a writing of divorcement, a provision was made for remarriage, as seen above. This provision within the law addressed an unrighteous situation for which death was not named as the solution. The action of divorce and subsequent remarriage is nowhere justified in this passage. This passage explains how an unrighteous action (the putting away of one's wife) could be governed within the society.

Within this provision, the Lord directly addresses an action which is highlighted as unrighteous in God's eyes. That is - the returning of the original wife to the original husband. The conclusion cannot be made that, because the divorce and subsequent remarriage are not directly addressed as "abomination," such actions are condoned and justified before God. The Word must be rightly divided. So let's examine the passage describing the abomination more closely. Once the woman becomes the wife of another (following the divorce of the first marriage), "she is defiled." To explore one aspect of this statement, is it sex that has defiled the woman? This cannot be the conclusion, as a man is commanded to take his brother's wife if his brother dies childless, so that his brother would not be left without an heir (Deuteronomy 25:6). Now let's review Hebrews 13:4:

Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.

So marriage is undefiled. But the former wife is defiled after being married to another, according to Deuteronomy 24. But the law gave her provision to be married to another man. It is plain then that the sanction and favor of God does not rest upon the second marriage, though the civil provision allows the union. Therein rests the agreement of this scripture with Christ's answer to the Pharisees in Mark 10. The Pharisees were so consumed with what they could get away with, that they overlooked what their justification (via Deuteronomy 24) meant: Sin. Remarriage causes defilement (sin), which stands in direct contrast to marriage, which is honorable in all, and the marriage bed undefiled.

So the disruption of Genesis 2:24 via remarriage causes the offending party to be defiled, and God calls the acceptance of that which is defiled an abomination. Next time, we'll discuss David's actions in 2 Samuel 3:14, and God's reaction to the defilement of Israel and Judah in Jeremiah 3.

2 comments:

  1. AMAZING TRUTH. CLEAR AND SHARP. Raises a question to how sensitive God's people are to what God calls defilement, in every area. They all seem to start with inordinate affections... SOOO much to chew on LORD!!

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  2. Great points. Just as an aside, the prefix "deutero-" means second, as in the second time an event occurs. When Moses was nearing the end of his life, he reiterated the laws God had given him for His people. Hence, we have the book of Deuteronomy, or "the Second giving of the Law."

    I love that you found "deuterogamy." Never heard of it, but it's certainly clear and concise! Love, Mom

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